hi, im really worried and dont know what to do..
i had protected sex with a massage girl in china and i was using durex condom
i didnt kiss or anything else. she just put a condom on my dick and i fucked her till the cum came out and it was even less than 30 seconds
what are the chances to catch aids and id lik to mention that it was my first time ever and im 18 yrs old only
i have a cofusion that i have a paper cut with no bleeding and pain.i wash my father wounds my father is hiv positive.i dont realize that i have a cut on my finger so i dont wear gloves is that is risky for me to transmit hiv virus kindly give me your suggestion and help me.
I met this girl online and on Jan 31 we decided to meet, We were talking in the car and got carried away ... and the next thing I know is she is stroking my penis and is rubbing her crotch. I figured her with my right hand and after a while, i used my left hand on me until I came. We met again a couple of days after and repeated the act and, this time, she also gave a blow job ....I had a condom on. she then took off my condom and gave a handjob till I came ... on both occasions we sanitized our hands before and after the act ... I also made sure I did not touch my penis.. until I came home again .. rubbed it with alcohol and disinfectant ... now couple of days ago I woke up in the night with sweat... my blanket and bed was soaked (it was a little hot in the room ) .but it never happened to me before .. and I also think I have body ache and headache (I could be imagining) .... my bowel moment is semi-solid ...kinda not normal .when I go through the various blogs ..I see all the symptoms are a match .Dr am I affected with HIV? I had no penetrative sex... but her vaginal fluids might have contacted my penis shaft ....
Hi!. My case is this, I hope you can help me with it:
I put a nipple in my mouth (from a sexworker) for a couple of seconds (I didn't suck it or bite). A few minutes later she pinched her nipple and a little drop of white liquid came out (I didn't put her nipple in my mouth anymore). In that moment I didn't had open wounds in my mouth, but I don't know if my gums were bleeding (sometimes do when I toothbrush). What's the risk in my case?
I had a low risk exposure on 30th of October 2015 and proceeded to be tested for HIV, Hep B and C, chlamydia and gonorrhoea at 6 weeks at my local health centre.
These were all negative. I then went back at 12 weeks to get a Hep B and C check again and at 13 weeks to get a final HIV test.
These were all negative.
Would these all be conclusive particularly chlamydia and gonorrhoea. The healthcare nurse said this should be easily detectable by 6 weeks.
My exposure was performing unprotected cunnilingus and receiving unprotected fellatio. The test was a PCR amplification test from urine. Recently I had sore throat so worried that they did not take a swab from the throat as well as the urine. A ENT doctor gave me a course of treatment for general inflammation of the throat. This included antibiotics as well general anti-microbial troches and anti-inflammatories and tablets to reduce acid reflux from the stomach.
Do you think it is worthwhile to return to the doctor to take a swab from throat or if there was any chlamydia or gonorrhoea in the throat, the broad-spectrum antibiotics would have killed it.
Thank you for help
Hello! I am sorry, I have a question...
The really bad situation had happened to me. There was a bbq party and I got a little cut on my finger,
after that I took the bottle of vodka and i tried to desinfected the wound, so I washed my finger with vodka,
then I took a towel and pressed the towell to my finger, but later I found out the towell that I had taken just from the laundry wasn' t clean enough, there was an old dried and washed blood stain on it...
the question is next:
1)Is that situation dangerous?
2)Is testing required?
I know...I heard that air and laundry washing dergent could kill the virus,
but what about the blood-to-blood contact, there was a real blood-to-blood contact! despite to the fact that the blood on the towell was dried and washed. Please help me, give me the suggestion.
Hi I recently met a lady, and we did the following
1. She gave me a handjob
2. I masturbated on her buttocks ( but did not enter her anally)
3. I masturbated between her breasts.
I know one can't get hiv this way, but is there still a possibility and should i get tested? Or am I just being anxious?
Thanks for your good selfless works and saving lives. I will be brief and precise. I had sex with three CSW same night with condoms. However, on each occasion, i realized that the condom had partially slipped off when I withdraw. It slips off up to the middle of my penis and in one occasion almost 60% off, but never slipped off completely.
Also, one of the CSW gave me brief oral without condom for like 3 minutes.
Now, 5 days after the act, I have high fever (37.9 deg F, sore throat, runny nose, cough)
I have few questions:
1.Did I put my self at risk on any of these acts above. I know CSW are not necessarily higher risk than anyone else.
2. Can these be ARS symptoms? Can the symptoms come so early?
3. Do I need to test specifically for this act. I recently did HIV testing as required for my job annually..
Thanks a lot for your help. Dying of fear.
There has been a question bothering me for some time. I did already some research but couldn't find a correct answer.
I've read that the risk of getting HIV by jerking each other (man&man) is negligible. Also docking and frottage, where precum (or even cum) gets in contact with your or the other one's urethra, would be a negligible risk?
Now I'm wondering... Why is there such a bigger risk envolved with anal sex? Because the dick (and urethra) of the top boy also gets in contact with blood that contains HIV. It's about the same risk you do as with jerking each other, right? Because also fluids that contain HIV gets in contact with the urethra.
I've also read that still while jerking each other, there is a negligible risk that you get infected if your partner rubs precum or sperm on the urethra. Or is this totally wrong? If correct... Why is anal sex then such a bigger risk? Because it's about the same... Blood that gets in contact with your urethra.
The main question I don't understand is how a top can get infected. Because people are saying that the urethra is no way to get infected?
Thanks in advance
On December 30th my boyfriend and I tried to have sex. The intercourse was protected, there was no oral/anal action at all. While he had his condom on he failed to achieve full erection, therefore, could not fully penetrate me (only for 10 sec or less). There was no ejaculation either. I did not know his HIV status though he claimed to be a virgin. 3 weeks later I have been experiencing cold like symptoms, low grade fever for a day, fatigue, joint pain and headaches. Are these signs of seroconversion? Should I get tested and what kind of test should I choose now? Antibody or Antigen?
Any input would be greatly appreciated.