I had a high risk and exposure protected oral and protected vaginal with a local CSW (legal brothel I guess). In between my condom tore I removed it after 1 minute then she made me cum.
I do not know the status of the person as it was my last day of my education and I got high.
She got the condom / rolled on me, gave me oral, then vaginal, and again oral with broken condom for 1 minute. The whole act was less than 6-7 minutes.
A few weeks later, I got sick with fever and diarrhoea sore throat . The diarrhoea and fever lasted for 4 days, but the sore throat lasted for 24 days and still have minor white coated tongue. Had chills along with some weight loss in beginning but again gained weight soon!
As of now I am down with minor sore throat / white coated tongue minor / dry mouth / abdominal pain / unproper stools for 12 days, skin sometimes itchy.
I got tested at the 4th and the 8th week, both were non reactive and were 4th generation duo tests.
However, I was anxious and fear is causing me go mad.
I was not reassured and got tested again at 13 weeks non reactive! I got tested again at 15 weeks, again this was non reactive. One HIV 1 PCR RNA along with duo combo CMIA method, both non reactive. All tests were taken from reputed lab, and this is 4 months post exposure.
Questions which makes me go mad, feel sick, guilty, and other emotions.
1) What is the window period? Some sources say 4 weeks some experts say 6 weeks ? Some say 3 months some say 6 and even 12 months?
2) Any chances of my tests being false negatives?
3) I am lot of fear ! Being too anxious? Can be too scared/ anxious/ fear / stress cause delay in results or production of antibodies? Would appreciate some info on my following !
First thank you for all the help.
So about 7 weeks ago 07/21/15 I had unprotected intercourse with someone of unknown HIV status. Yesterday 09/11/15I had again unprotected intercourse with a different partner . It was foolish I know. But I want to test . I am planning on testing with the HIV early detection test from stdcheck.com here in the USA . My question is as follows
1. Will the HIV DNA material be detectable from 7 weeks ago?
2.) how about 10 days post exposure from 09/11/15
I plan to test again October 12 with a 4th generation HIV test and another RNA test .
Would this be accurate for both exposures ?
Thanks again :)
Hi . You guys are great and should be commended for your work in answering so many questions even if they are repetitive. You guys have answered many of my questions and really helped calm down my anxiety. Yesterday 09/11/15I engaged in protected sex again. And again my anxiety went back up. I am mad at myself for doing it again . I don't know if condom broke or not but HIV has hit my mind once again. :(. This is my last time engaging in this activity until I get married I can't handle anxiety anymore . Less learned . Well my question is I called stdcheck.com here in the u.s and they offer the early HIV detection test for 175$ U.S dollars. I was informed their public health specialist that this test for HIV is 95-99 % conclusive by 9-11 days and that it is conclusive by 28+ days post exposure . Would you agree with this ? Should I trust them. I will test at day 10 and day 28. And I think I'll be able to Lowe my anxiety a lot that I'll be able to wait 3 months for a 4th generation. I hate the fact that this scary disease takes so long to detect . It's hard to wait for the clear of 3 months .
Sorry for making this long. Hopefully I don't annoy you. Thank you very much for your great help
Hi there, I took a rapid finger prick test at 33 days (1 month) post possible exposure.
It was negative. I was a low risk scenario and had caught a cold 2 weeks after the possible exposure, my underarm turned red for a few days and a light reddish area near the side of my back...but this was all before the test and the nurse said if I was symptomatic of HIV the test would of picked it up. I'm near 7 weeks now and fighting myself to get another test? Should i? Would that 33 day negative change? I'm not a drug user or have been on cancer treatment....please help me, thank you!
I am reading this article on Mayoclinic website and it doesn't make much sense.
I am pasting couple of disturbing lines here.
Antibodies against HIV-1 and HIV-2 are usually not detectable until 6 to 12 weeks following exposure and are almost always detectable by 12 months. They may fall to undetectable levels (ie, seroreversion) in the terminal stage of AIDS when the patient's immune system is severely depressed.
----- Why it says it can take up to 12 months to be show the virus ------ when it takes 3 to 6 months ?
Negative results for both HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies usually indicate absence of HIV-1 and HIV-2 infection. However, in patients tested reactive by a fourth generation HIV antigen and antibody combination immunoassays, such negative results do not rule out acute HIV infection. If acute HIV-1 infection is suspected, detection of HIV-1 RNA (HIVQU / HIV-1 RNA Quantification, Plasma) or HIV proviral DNA (PHIV / HIV-1 Proviral DNA Qualitative Detection by PCR, Blood) is recommended.
Negative results for both HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies do not rule out acute HIV infection. If acute HIV-1 infection is suspected, detection of HIV-1 RNA (HIVQU / HIV-1 RNA Quantification, Plasma) or HIV proviral DNA (PHIV / HIV-1 Proviral DNA Qualitative Detection by PCR, Blood) is recommended. For patients at risk for HIV-2 infection (eg, having lived in West Africa or have sexual partners from West Africa), testing for HIV-2 DNA / RNA (FHV2Q / HIV-2 DNA/RNA Qualitative Real-Time PCR) is recommended.
----- what are they trying to say that when they say negative test doesn't rule out the acute infection ---
Here is the link of that article:
In April 2015, my husband and I had a threesome with a male acquaintance. I did not know his status at the time. I engaged in unprotected oral (giving and receiving) and protected vaginal with condoms and the male not ejaculate. My husband did not engage in any activity with the male. Just me.
In May we did the same with another male though there was no vaginal sex, I did give and receive unprotected oral without ejaculation. My husband did not engage with the male, just with me.
On June 21, we had another threesome with a third male acquaintance of unknown status. I engaged in unprotected oral and vaginal penetration without ejaculation on the part of the male. I did use my hand to bring the male to ejaculation (masturbation).
In July my husband and I travelled to Bangkok and received body to body massages by two women. There was no oral, vaginal or anal sex. We bathed together and touched each other only. They kissed my neck, ears and back as well as manually stimulate my husband and myself.
On a separate occasion in Bangkok my husband received 2 massages ending in a hand job and the masseuse fingered his anus without protection.
Two weeks after this, my husband came down with flu-like symptoms. We both got tested for HIV using Aptima HIV-1 RNA from a nearby lab. My results were negative and his were positive.
We are getting retested and getting his viral load and CD4 now.
I thought we were only engaging in low-risk or negligible-risk activities. Is there any chance he got a false positive? Prior to April of this year, we have been monogamous for ten years together. And we do not use drugs. No blood transfusions. I don't understand how this could happen?? I've read all the numbers calculating the risk of each activity and it seems more likely that he got a false positive. Looking for advice or thoughts. Our doctors don't seem to believe us or care how it happened.
Hi, I live in the United States and I had unprotected sex with a female and she has said that she is safe from all diseases and that she has been tested before. I was still concerned because I had a small rash on the head of my penis a few days later and went to my urologist and told me it was fungal and cream cleared it up.
I still had following test done to make sure I
33 days after exposure HIV 3rd generation test negative.
49 days after exposure HIV 4th generation combo test and HIV RNA test (that detects the virus directly and conclusive at 28 days) both negative.
77 days after exposure HIV 3rd generation combo test was also negative
84 days after exposure HIV 4th generation test negative
126 days after exposure HIV 3rd generation test along with STD panel for other STDs also all negative.
I was told that 84 days is conclusive and no other testing is needed. I have thyroid condition caused by and autoimmune issue but was told that doesn't fall under the 4 categories that would delay an HIV test. Could you please help and tell me if my result are indeed conclusive. For some reason there are no websites in the USA that compares to your website with all the information you have. I would appreciate any help and thank you.
I am gay in my 30s and had sex with another guy. I was the bottom and we used a condom. In the middle of sex, I told him I'm in pain and to stop. He proceeded to take off the condom and then out of nowhere he suddenly pushed his penis inside me. I immediately pushed him out. I would say his unprotected penis was inside me about a quarter of the way in for about 2-3 seconds. He had pre-cum. The following day, I asked him if he was healthy, and he said yes (no proof of course). He didn't even bother asking me my status. I'm really worried. Do you know people who tested positive from such cases where there was brief exposure?
On the 26th of June, I had protected sex with a woman younger than me. While we were having sex I noticed a very unpleasant odor, so much that I had to stop. this odor made me extremely worried.
I went through an Internet STD check service where I had a full 10 panel STD check to include the 4th Gen test and an RNA quick detection test, all blood drawn.
The tests were 2 weeks and again 4 weeks after possible exposure. Both tests came back negative.
Should I still be worried?
hello, at first sorry for my bad English and thank you very much for your replies and interest
5 days ago, I recently engaged in protected oral sex with a woman of unknown status. I did not ejaculate during the oral. The woman wear the condom to my my penis with her mouth. during the oral sex, i touch her vagina for a very short time and fell a litte wet vaginal fluid. İ did not put my finger inside her vagina, only i touch her vagina nearly 5-10 seconds...
After the protected oral sex , i took the condom off with my hand and then she began to give me a handjob with baby massage oil. After about 2 minutes later i touched my penis too and masturbate. then i cum.. before and after the protected oral sex i kiss her lips for a short time.. it was very a soft kiss.
1 ) Is it likely that if her vaginal fluid was infected and touched my penis head, then the force of masturbate would force the little bit of fluid down my urethra? I had no cuts or sores on my penis or scrotum. I am very worried . after this event, nearly 2-3 hours later i had a sore throat. every time i worry about hiv risk, i have sore throat .
2 ) wearing condom to my penis with her mouth is a risk? ( because of salva vs )
3) the time between touching her vagina and then touching my penis is nearly 2 minutes.. and i have no cuts or sores in my finger.. the vaginal fluid is so little and if there was virus in my hang ,could it be decay in two minutes because ot air contact?
4) i read lots of articles about test period. after 9/10 days later PCR RNA would give an idea about my situation. and 14th day vidas duo test ?
please help me..
thank you again